|
Post by jefe on Jul 29, 2009 4:39:25 GMT -5
I think we need to go back a lot further than British colonies, especially when the majority of people stayed in England and people didn't see mixed marriages as acceptable. I was thinking common ancestors and immigration from areas with Eurasian populations (I'm not entirely sure of the country names but some ex-soviet countries have what I would call a Eurasian population) over hundreds/thousands of years. I'm not a geneticist but presumably they pass on the useful variant genes as a priority, so the Asian genes would be passed on even if the mixed marriage had been from hundreds of years ago. I have read another theory. The Central Asian populations are not primarily the result of mixture from hundreds / thousands of years ago, but are directly descendant from the original stock that populated the Eurasian continent. Different tribes moved East and West, experiencing genetic bottlenecks along the way, causing Europe and East Asia to be differentiated from each other, but each descendant from the original Central Asian population stock. So, neither population would be the result of mixture per se, but the result of genetic drift from the same original population. Perhaps the East ASian and European populations are more mixed than the Central Asian peoples, as they did mix with inhabitants who migrated earlier, or even possibly with other humanoid species (eg, neanderthals or other earlier human tribes).
|
|
|
Post by Subuatai on Jul 31, 2009 6:45:39 GMT -5
^ I support that theory
|
|